And there's the idea that gays "choose" the "gay lifestyle" - whatever that is. As I've pointed out before on this page, if anyone can "choose" to be gay, so can you.
This is oversimplified. Indeed, it's a little more false than true: if one posits (as do I, and I believe as most scholars of the subject believe) that sexual orientation on the 7-point "Kinsey Scale" -- with 1 as purely heterose_xual and 7 as purely homose_xual -- in the population can be graphed as a leftward-smooshed Bell Curve, with the apex of the bell over about the "2" (which is a strongly heterose_xual leaning),
then, because it's a bell curve, most of those who feel same-se_x attractions will be
bise_xual (Kinsey scales of 3, 4 or 5), not either purely (7) or almost entirely (6) homose_xual.
And isn't it at least fair to say that those with a bise_xual orientation DO have a "choice"?
Although se_xual orientation's dynamics aren't fully understood, doesn't it seem plausible that one's early choices/experiences, when positively reinforced over and over (orga_sms feel pretty good), can alter somewhat the orientation one otherwise might have had?
Good post Pogo, pretty much what I am referring to. Also, is there a reason you split up the word (or word fragment) "sex" as "se_x"? Just curious.