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To: Torie; jwalsh07
Nothing in the constitution shall be construed to preclude the power of the states to pass their own laws regarding who is eligible for marriage, but Congress shall have the right authority to adopt establish a national standard, which shall preempt the laws of the states to the extent inconsistent therewith.

This looks good to me, and might be better than establishing an explicit definition within the Constitution, although that would be better than doing nothing at all.

The explicit definition is more marketable, though.

Would the President have a veto over Congressional standards, or would Congress be sovereign in this?


293 posted on 06/30/2003 7:31:16 PM PDT by Sabertooth
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To: Sabertooth
Far too complicated to be able to get the necessary massive support.
296 posted on 06/30/2003 7:36:43 PM PDT by aristeides
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To: Sabertooth
Your language is an obvious improvement. I was just tapping at the keys on the fly. No, of course, the President would have a veto. This would merely empower the passage of a federal statute establishing a national standard, subject to repeal, or amendment, in the normal course.

Maybe, something to the effect that the federal government shall have the authority to adopt statutes establishing a definition of who is eligible for marriage ..." etc. Just what is the cadence of words typically used here is not my specialty. I am not a constitutional lawyer, but rather a mere hack provincial lawyer, who makes his living drafting constracts, and yipping and yapping in provincial courts.

298 posted on 06/30/2003 7:40:17 PM PDT by Torie
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