The question is though... would a man who is married to one woman be committing adultry by sodomizing another woman? See the slippery slope we're headed here...
"Section 21.06 is one part of a system of laws including laws disfavoring adultery, banning polygamy and sex education requirements that sex outside of marriage, including homosexual sodomy, be discouraged."
You would have to look up cases on that subject for any rulings.
See the Slippery Slope.... My irony meter just pegged and broke on that one.