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To: Luis Gonzalez
Bestiality is not included in the definition of sodomy, sodomy has historically been defined as anal intercourse, oral intercourse, and in some cases masturbation.

Well you're wrong but why don't you get to the point. I consider anal intercourse, beastiality, and homosexual sex of whatever kind perverse.

Oral sex between men and women is not something I would put in that category.

Any other questions?

330 posted on 06/28/2003 12:22:02 PM PDT by jwalsh07
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To: jwalsh07
The Bible draws no distinction between heterosexual and homosexual sodomy...why do you?
333 posted on 06/28/2003 12:23:44 PM PDT by Luis Gonzalez (Cuba serĂ¡ libre...soon.)
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To: jwalsh07
The case which was put before the Court revolved around a law which defined sodomy as contact between one person's anal/oral cavity, and another person's genitalia.

It labeled that contact "deviant sexual intercourse", and criminalized it for same sex couples.

By statute, in Texas, heterosexuals are not "persons".
339 posted on 06/28/2003 12:28:03 PM PDT by Luis Gonzalez (Cuba serĂ¡ libre...soon.)
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To: jwalsh07
I consider anal intercourse, beastiality, and homosexual sex of whatever kind perverse.

Oral sex between men and women is not something I would put in that category.

Well others would disagree with you--some state governments would. State governments did, and law was put into place. Now those laws don't exist because they were found to be unconstitutional.

363 posted on 06/28/2003 12:53:04 PM PDT by huck von finn
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