Bunk.
Laws against homosexual acts do not apply to me, they apply to people who would be inclined to engage in homosexual acts. If they applied to everyone, you wouldn't need to use "homosexual" as a qualifier.
In enacting the law, and by clearly stating that sodomy will only be considered a crime when engaged in by people of the same sex, homosexuals, the law itself creates a sub-segment of society, and uses the gender of the individuals involved in the act to differentiate between criminal activity and permitted activity.
In the eyes of the law, when it comes to crimes, we are all simply citizens. Not male citizens vs. female citizens.
Of course, I could be wrong, and you could prove me wrong by pointing out any and all other laws where the act, actions, or behavior which are deemed to be anti-social or destructive, are legal for some, and not legal for others.
Your error on this statement is the fact that you have not read the Texas Statutes; they clearly indicate that contact between one person's anal or oral cavity, and another person's genitalia is considered to be "deviant sexual intercourse", then the make it illegal for homosexuals to engage in it, and perfectly fine for the rest of the citizenry to engage in "deviant sexual intercourse".
Give Oprah a call; perhaps she will buy into your liberal whine.
This has been pointed out to you before, and you have ignored it.
IN the eyes of the law, when it comes to crime, we are not all simply citizens. Some are criminals and some are not.
There is no physical or biological difference between a normal person and a homoerotically oriented person. The difference is the behavior of same-sex erotic activity. If same-sex erotic activity is illegal, it is perfectly reasonable to call those who engage in such activity criminals while not calling those who do not engage in such acticity criminals.
If you are aware of any proof of a physical or biological test for homoerotic orientation, please feel free to point it out.
Shalom.