The implication is that sodomy somehow adversely affects the institution of marriage. If as many married people commit sodomy as single people, how can that statement possibly be true? The major premise is flawed; therefore the conclusion drawn from that premise is specious.
As to my major premise being in doubt ("As many married people commit sodomy as single people"), show me any evidence that indicates that married couples engage less frequently in oral or anal sex than singles. Since the definition of sodomy is copulation involving any but the "natural" genitals, I maintain that your position is less likely than mine.
The burden is on you, the maker of the statement that as many..., not on me; I know of no such studies that support that statement, and if it were true, then a more appropriate word instead of specious would be suspect.
I don't care who buggers whom; but the language and its proper use does concern me.
Anyone, I'm bored and just felt like tickling someone.