How can you say it is consistant when the age of consent for heterosexual activity is 16 (and thus an adult male who has sex with a 16 year old girl is NOT guilty of statutory rape) while the age of consent for homosexual activity is set at 18 years old (an adult male who has sex with a 16 year old boy IS guilty of statutory rape)."
First and foremost, I don't believe that the law states that there is a age of consent for homosexual sex in Texas, that would be inconsistent with the law being discussed here which makes all homosexual sex illegal. No one in Texas can consent to homosexual sex at any age. The law you are talking about simply sets the age of consent for boys at a different age than it does for girls.
Brrt. Wrong. I used an adult male in my above example but an adult woman may have sex with a 16 year old boy if she wants (and there have been a number of cases of female teachers bedding their students and even getting pregnant from the union) and an adult woman is prohibited from having sex with a 16 year girl if she wants.