A straightforward statement of the law. I believe it would be even more clear if the loaded and unnecessary term "homosexual" were simply dropped out or replaced as follows: "If [a man] does not wish to have oral or anal sex with a woman, it is not the court's fault. [A man] is free to have sex with [a woman] and not be prosecuted. Thus the man is not facing unequal protection of the law. [Male-male and female-female deviate sexual] acts are prohibited; [male-female deviate sexual] acts are not. This is the distinction of the law."
Under the law the terms "gay," "lesbian," and "homosexual" mean absolutely nothing. It is certain specified acts of male-male or female-female sexual behavior associated in the popuar mind with those terms that have meaning. But until and unless such an act is committed, there is no offense. Any man or woman who calls him or herself a "gay" or "lesbian" is at best merely serving public notice that he or she is or may be inclined to ignore or disobey that law.
"If [a man] does not wish to have oral or anal sex with a woman, it is not the court's fault. [A man] is free to have sex with [a woman] and not be prosecuted. Thus the man is not facing unequal protection of the law. [Male-male and female-female deviate sexual] acts are prohibited; [male-female deviate sexual] acts are not. This is the distinction of the law."
But what is the reason for the law?