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To: 4ConservativeJustices
Mens rea does not connote lack of knowledge of the law.

Mens rea connotes a guilty mind, or the mental state accompanying a forbidden act. For an act to constitute a criminal offense, the act usually must not only be illegal, but also be accompanied by a requisite mental state. It would be quite a challenge to show criminal intent by the act of secession.

I agree with your assessment of Texas v. White. Also, Chase strains mightily to create a definition of a State useful to his purpose.

984 posted on 05/22/2003 6:59:57 PM PDT by nolu chan
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To: nolu chan
LOL, I know what you mean, but in actual practice "ignorance of the law" is no defense, nor does intent have to be proven (I know there are exceptions ;o)
986 posted on 05/22/2003 9:24:23 PM PDT by 4CJ (If at first you don't secede, try, try again.)
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