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To: Lady Eileen
Could someone tell me if it is true that the Emancipation Proclamation only freed slaves in areas that the U.S. government did NOT control? That slaves in other areas such as Maryland were freed later when the 14th Amendment was passed?

Also, is it true that Robert E. Lee freed his slaves before the War, but U.S.Grant's wife's slaves were freed only when the 14th Amendment was passed?

I have always heard these things but don't know if they are true. Remember, the victor gets to write the history.

A. Patriot, from the "Occupied South"
98 posted on 04/16/2003 8:06:00 AM PDT by A. Patriot
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To: A. Patriot
Could someone tell me if it is true that the Emancipation Proclamation only freed slaves in areas that the U.S. government did NOT control? That slaves in other areas such as Maryland were freed later when the 14th Amendment was passed?

That is correct. It did not affect the slave owning states that remained loyal to the Union.

100 posted on 04/16/2003 8:09:58 AM PDT by Corin Stormhands (HHD, FRM, RFA)
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To: A. Patriot
Also, is it true that Robert E. Lee freed his slaves before the War, but U.S.Grant's wife's slaves were freed only when the 14th Amendment was passed?

That is incorrect. Lee freed slaves left to his wife from her father's estate in December 1862, a few days before the Emancipation Proclamation became effective. Grant had owned a slave for a short period in his life but granted the man freedom when he moved to Illinois in 1859. Grant's wife had use of several female slaves belonging to her father for various periods in their married life, including early in the war. But Missouri records show that the Dent family slaves were freed in January or February of 1863. In any event Missouri ended slavery through constitutional amendment in January 1865. Finally Grant couldn't have owned any slaves when the 14th Amendment was ratified slavery had been ended by ratification of the 13th Amendment in December 1865.

101 posted on 04/16/2003 8:14:51 AM PDT by Non-Sequitur
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To: A. Patriot
Could someone tell me if it is true that the Emancipation Proclamation only freed slaves in areas that the U.S. government did NOT control? That slaves in other areas such as Maryland were freed later when the 14th Amendment was passed?

Yes.

Also, is it true that Robert E. Lee freed his slaves before the War, but U.S.Grant's wife's slaves were freed only when the 14th Amendment was passed?

No.

Slavery clearly was protected by the Constitution. It was a state affair. Lincoln invoked the war power of the president to free slaves in areas where the federal government had no control. The slave power held that slaves were property, right? Seizing property was a well known concept in the law of war. That was Lincoln's rationale.

Lee held slaves until the beginnning of 1863. I don't believe he ever filed papers on some, saying that the war freed them.

There is at least one account of Lee ordering the flogging of one of his slaves who tried to escape.

Lee said in an 1865 letter that the best relation of whites to blacks was master and slave.

Grant had one slave, whom he freed in 1859. His wife owned no slaves although some of her father's were in her employ early in the war. Those slaves were freed when Missouri outlawed slavery before the end of the war.

Walt

103 posted on 04/16/2003 8:19:40 AM PDT by WhiskeyPapa (Be copy now to men of grosser blood and teach them how to war!)
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To: A. Patriot
The Emancipation Proclamation could only apply to rebel-held territoty because its authorizing legislation, the Confiscation Act of July 1862, referred only to slaves held by rebels, who were to be "forever free."

Didn't know that Lincoln was carrying out a law? That's because Democrats write most of the history books, but not mine.

105 posted on 04/16/2003 8:24:12 AM PDT by Grand Old Partisan (You can read about my history of the GOP at www.republicanbasics.com)
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To: A. Patriot
REL never owned any slaves to free (indeed he owned nothing but his personal effects & a horse in 1860-his family was poor.).

he UNLAWFULLY freed some slaves which his WIFE received by legacy (this in the Commonwealth of VA is NOT a "technicality";we have, since the early 1700s had "femme sole" laws, as well as "dower & curtsy", which allow women to own separate property from their family/husband.- had he NOT been "a Lee", he would have been arrested for freeing someone else's slaves (some pigs, as orwell said, really are more equal than other pigs.)!

the "emancipaton proclamation" free NOBODY, as it applied ONLY to those areas under rebel control! SOME slaves in the NORTH were freed more than a YEAR after Richmond fell.

FRee dixie,sw

119 posted on 04/16/2003 8:51:01 AM PDT by stand watie (Resistance to tyrants is obedience to God. : Thomas Jefferson 1774)
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