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To: GOPcapitalist
I just checked the one that I still had pulled up and saw nothing contradicting its statement of fact about habeas corpus. Do you have anything that shows otherwise?

No, because we aren't discussing habeas corpus. As for the rest this is reminding me of our discussion of what constituted an obiter dicta. As I recall you clung to your rather unique interpretation of that, too.

659 posted on 04/25/2003 6:29:21 PM PDT by Non-Sequitur
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To: Non-Sequitur
No, because we aren't discussing habeas corpus.

My apologies. I meant ex post facto, but was thinking habeas corpus due to another discussion I'm having on that subject.

As for the rest this is reminding me of our discussion of what constituted an obiter dicta.

In some ways, it may be. But it remains that my interpretation of ex post facto is perfectly consistent with the definition of that term given by Marshall as well as the history behind it in England.

As I recall you clung to your rather unique interpretation of that, too.

As did you.

660 posted on 04/25/2003 8:11:32 PM PDT by GOPcapitalist
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