To which you replied:
When the act is "finished" orally, yes, it represents sodomy. Such an act is obviously opposed to the natural order.
But when the act is "started" orally, is it then natural? This would seem to me to be splitting hairs, as it were. Either it is natural or it is not. If the act is unnatural, no rearrangement will change it. What does it matter in what order natural acts are completed? What business is it of yours if my wife ends up on top? Where is the compelling state interest to keep her below me in my own home?