[#3Fan]

You are just hopeless...period. A. The preamble did NOT refer to negroes or Indians,...

You're saying the Constitution doesn't apply to minorities?

...and I assume you are smart enough to realize it. The majority of the founding fathers who wrote the Constitution were SLAVE owners. Period. So don't use that lame argument.

So since some of the founding fathers say that slavery is OK then it's not immoral to practice it? Slavery is immoral and you are proof of what I've told neo-Confederates for two years on this site, that you think that slavery is no big deal.

B. Most slaves imported were Muslims or pagans, so there goes that argument.

But they turned into Christians.

C.READ ALL OF THE DOCUMENT...not just the part that seems to justify your argument. Secession would have occurred eventually , with or without slavery.

LOL Slavery is mentioned in all parts of the document.

[TexConfederate1861]

Slavery was NOT considered immoral by most people at the time, and YES, at the time the founding fathers wrote the Constitution, these "minorities" were considered 3/5 of a person, and had little or no rights, hence the answer to your question is NO...