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To: MrLeRoy; matthew_the_brain
"the federal government has no Constitutional authority"

"It is therefore not surprising that every court that has considered the question, both before and after the Supreme Court's decision in Lopez, has concluded that section 841(a)(1) represents a valid exercise of the commerce power."

Here's your cite. Stop lying to the other posters.

75 posted on 01/13/2003 9:07:41 AM PST by robertpaulsen
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To: robertpaulsen
"every court that has considered the question, both before and after the Supreme Court's decision in Lopez, has concluded that section 841(a)(1) represents a valid exercise of the commerce power."

Duh---section 841(a)(1) was enacted well after FDR's court-packing threat had cowed the Supreme Court into ceasing to interpret the Commerce Clause as it was written. The clear language of the Commerce Clause remains on my side; your craven surrender to FDR-style Constitutional misinterpretation is duly noted.

77 posted on 01/13/2003 9:12:34 AM PST by MrLeRoy
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