"It is therefore not surprising that every court that has considered the question, both before and after the Supreme Court's decision in Lopez, has concluded that section 841(a)(1) represents a valid exercise of the commerce power."
Here's your cite. Stop lying to the other posters.
Duh---section 841(a)(1) was enacted well after FDR's court-packing threat had cowed the Supreme Court into ceasing to interpret the Commerce Clause as it was written. The clear language of the Commerce Clause remains on my side; your craven surrender to FDR-style Constitutional misinterpretation is duly noted.