So if it was HIS interpretation that a law was unConstitutional, his vote would be OK as a constructionist. So he viewed a minor getting an abortion without parental consent as Constitutional in your view. Otherwise, he would have thrown it out.
I need context, or at least a case. Was the law in agreement with the Texas (I assume?) Constitution?
Constitutionality was not a question before the court, and the court doesn't answer questions it is not asked. At least strict constructionist courts don't.
In any event, had Gonzales (along with the rest of the 100% Republican Texas Supreme Court) voted to overturn that Texas law, it would have resulted in NO PARENTAL NOTIFICATION at all, ever.
Get it?