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To: VadeRetro
What doesn't happen in any event is the appearance of a really new language out of this situation. And from what Indoeuropean conquerors did the Hebrews acquire their "Celtic" or whatever language?

The language question is certainly one that should be examined at some time, but to hang any substantial issue on language is IMHO just silly. Language is not like genes, it just the way in which they communicated. In the case of the Celts this was mostly verbal as their relegion or whatever frowned on leaving any written records.

In the case of the Celts, they didn't need to "acquire" their language from any conquerors. They were the conquerors, so their language probably came from somewhere else.

444 posted on 11/30/2002 3:52:24 PM PST by Mare Tranquilitatus
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To: Mare Tranquilitatus
They were the conquerors, so their language probably came from somewhere else.

Where?

448 posted on 11/30/2002 4:01:01 PM PST by VadeRetro
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To: Mare Tranquilitatus
That is BS, language groups require a mass of speakers in a given area, my mother is a q-celt as are the Scots, the p-celt language is unintellagable. Ask a Welshman or a Breton to talk to a Harp or a Scot.
468 posted on 11/30/2002 5:05:32 PM PST by Little Bill
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