Not all, but some. I also see that we have already agreed existence precedes human cognition. The question was (there were other questions): does existence = reason?
If you say this is what the question was, it's new to me.
Define 'existence' and then define 'reason' and then tell me if they share inclusively common terms.
If they don't then the equation doesn't work. In other words, if 'reason' is dependent upon existence as an Axiom, as a premise for reason, then they can't be 'equal' can they?