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Are you saying that the Catholic Church teaches (and believes) that Joseph stayed married to Mary for however long after Jesus was born and did NOT have normal marital relations with her?

Yes. That such marital relations would not, in a time when birth control would have been unknown, result in other children being conceived?

I'm not sure I understand the question. If they had had relations, they surely would have had other children. Since they did not have relations, they did not have other children.

To me the notion is ludicrous to say the least. What would be the purpose of such a belief?

The affirmation of the Truth.

What would have been the purpose of such a marriage?

To provide for the care, upbringing, and instruction of the Most Precious Child on earth.

Is it entirely ludicrous to think that a man and woman who were informed by God that they would be responsible for the Savior of the World might be a bit, um, focused on the task at hand?

Actually, yes, I am. If the RCC teaches that Mary was a virgin AND a married woman all her life, that is too ludicrous for words. Parents raise all manner of children all the time and still have time and energy for a normal husband-and-wife relationship. Where does the RCC come up with this notion? Aside from the fact that Mary's "cherry" would have vanished when her birth canal opened so that Jesus could emerge... unless you are saying that His BIRTH was another miracle that did not entail the usual things most births not Ceasarian entail, just so that she could stay virginal...