[Campion]

Another interesting point I learned just yesterday. On Calvary, Jesus tells Mary (referring to John), literally, in Greek, "There is the son of you". If she had other sons, the correct Greek diction would have omitted the article, and He would have said, "There is son of you," or (better rendered) "He is a son to you" instead of "He is the son of you".

[SpringheelJack]

Another interesting point I learned just yesterday. On Calvary, Jesus tells Mary (referring to John), literally, in Greek, "There is the son of you". If she had other sons, the correct Greek diction would have omitted the article, and He would have said, "There is son of you," or (better rendered) "He is a son to you" instead of "He is the son of you".

The word does not imply exclusivity. The Greek phrase you refer to is "ide o uios sou," with "o" being translated "the". In Matthew I find this: "Jakobos o tou Zebedaiou," "James the son of Zebedee". Since John was also a son of Zebedee, "o" clearly doesn't mean "only".