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To: LostTribe
Me: > You said that, from a Jewish perspective, the lost tribes are gentiles. That is clearly false.

You: > That is my contention, as stated and clearly explained in post #29. And that explanation is supported in the brief 3-MINUTE HISTORY found at my LostTribe Profile. Your disagreeing does not make it false.

It may be your contention but it is not based in reality. How do you know that the Jews consider the lost tribes to be gentile? Have you ever had any Jewish education? Where does your "contention" come from?


Me: > You said gentile means "not quite like us." That is also clearly false.

You: > Tell that to the Mormons who use the word GENTILE properly, as a word which is meaningless without context. Just because Jews have "co-opted" the word Gentile over time does not alter its usage-dependence. Jews do not have a corner on the word GENTILE any more than on the word HOLOCAUST, ongoing efforts notwithstanding..

The only problem with that reasoning is that the Jews were using the word "goy" (gentile) 3000 years before the Mormons existed. The word "goy" is in the book of Genesis. Explain how the Jews "co-opted" the word. I could use a good laugh.
40 posted on 08/05/2002 7:38:49 PM PDT by Inyokern
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To: Inyokern
>Jews were using the word "goy" (gentile) 3000 years before the Mormons existed.

There were no Jews ~3200 years ago. Another attempt to co-opt history?

(For a much needed history lesson, please take 3 minutes and study the 3-MINUTE HISTORY at my LostTribe Profile. At least it will help you get some dates and definitions straight.)

42 posted on 08/05/2002 8:04:37 PM PDT by LostTribe
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