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To: billbears
The short answer is "No". The Supreme Court, at the behest of those famous States' Rights advocates in the current Republican administration, has already ruled on that.
45 posted on 07/31/2002 9:50:04 AM PDT by Wolfie
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To: Wolfie
No, because the SCOTUS has overstepped it's bounds? Or no, because the constitution actually prohibits it (in it's intent, not in it's current convoluted interpretation)?

EBUCK

52 posted on 07/31/2002 9:55:41 AM PDT by EBUCK
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