Fair enough. I understand a bit about the nuances of Biblical translation, having studied Greek while working on my Masters of Divinity Degree. However, a sentence like "The apple is red" is pretty straightforward, and not that difficult to translate effectivly into most languages.
The same works with "Homosexuality is bad". This also in not a difficult idea to translate effectivly. Homosexuality is only mentioned seven times in the whole Bible, four in the OT and three in the NT. In ALL instances, however, it is spoken about in a negative way. There is no positive illustration of homosexuality or homosexual lifestyle ANYWHERE in Scripture (David and Johnathan were just really good friends; get over it!).
The Bible is extremely clear on the issue of homosexual behavior. YOu don't have to believe it, or agree with it. But it's very clear. And people have every right to believe that homosexual behavior is not a good thing (just like you have every right to believe it's a good thing).
Since you have studied Greek, has anybody ever posed this argument: In NT, in I Corinthians 6, there's a laundry list of things that will prevent one from inheriting the kingdom. In the NKJV, the word homosexual is used in this list. A Greek Orthodox gay had argued that this interpretation comes from two words in the Greek, which turn out to be "man-bed". He said that Paul, if he meant homosexual, he would have used the common word used at the time, but instead chose this phrase. What do you think?
My rejoinder was this proves nothing. Man-bed sounds suspicious. Also, if this man-bed thing is so innocuous, why is it in this list? I also asserted that maybe Paul didn't want to use the common word because is provoked disgust. For example, Paul used "fell asleep" instead of "died". Similarly, I would not use the word "fag", but would prefer to use homosexual or gay.