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California was admitted to the union in 1850 as a "free" state, where slavery was outlawed. Of course these are "slave era" policies. And they were held by "slave" owners allegedly (not by the slaves themselves of course). How all of that converts into damages for "slaves" escapes me. Of course, after using the "slave" word, the article quickly segues off into discussing indentured Chinese laborers. The article seems more focused on using hot button words than being focused logically. But that is just my opinion. I am surprised that Davis stuck his toe into this one. It might get stubbed.