Because rights either exist, or they do not.
If our rights are brokered by the state in a semi-socialistic-centrally-planned economy, then they are not recognized by the state as rights, but priveleges.
Why is this hard to understand?
Well, it really is pretty black and white isn't it? Either people accept the outcome of market forces, or the government acts to influence that outcome by using force. Government stepping into the equation is socialistic, is it not?