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To me, the passages are plain enough. Christ indeed had half-brothers and sisters born to Joseph and Mary. But what if my "pastor" disagrees with me? Is he right, or am I? There are probably as many interpretations of the Bible as there are Protestant denominations.

You are correct,the bible states that Mary was a full wife to Joseph..

Matthew 1 24 When Joseph woke up, he did what the angel of the Lord had commanded him and took Mary home as his wife. 25 But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus..

Pretty clear that at some point they indeed were husband and wife. It is out of some need to make Mary superhuman that her being a faithful submissive wife is dismissed..

The Bible states elsewhere that a woman had no children "until the day of her death." The implication is not that she did afterward. The English is misleading here. There is ambiguity. One can interpret it either way.

It seems to us that this is a statement attesting to Mary's virginity at the time of Jesus' birth. It says nothing about afterward.

The Greek word transcribed "until" does not imply normal marital conduct after Jesus' birth, nor does it exclude it.

I remember reading this several times in books detailing the original translation from aramaic to greek to latin to english.

Just my two cents. :)