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To: semper_libertas; KayEyeDoubleDee
Human invention of course. You should certainly drop "of course" here.

Just as any language is an invention. Even the lowest of the species have language. Are they capable of invention?

The natural principles described by mathematics are pre-existing. So how come we first "invent" an area of mathematics and only subsequently "discover" that it describers Nature?

106 posted on 01/07/2002 1:06:01 PM PST by TopQuark
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To: TopQuark
So how come we first "invent" an area of mathematics and only subsequently "discover" that it describers Nature

I would argue that historically this is not the order of these two events. It is only recently that a few obscure areas of mathematics have been shown to have physical "manifestations". For instance, I read recently about an example involving the Banach-Tarski paradox.

137 posted on 01/07/2002 2:04:01 PM PST by KayEyeDoubleDee
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