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To: P8riot
"If this was a prerequisite for Salvation, then why does Jesus say in John 14:6 that "... no man cometh unto the Father, but by me."?

I never said it was a prerequiste for salvation. This parable has more than just one lesson in it. I cited a parable that showed that Jesus held up the good works of a non-believer as an example of how we should be. It was NOT an ACCIDENT that he chose a Samaritan to make a point that the Samaritan knew who was his neighbor. He was trying to show the crowd that the Levites for all the law and rules they followed and all thier pride and assurance of salvation they were going too far by thinking that they could pass by a person in need because of the Sabbath rules or because he was an ungodly, unclean heathen. And I think it is not incorrect to draw the inference that Jesus was telling them that he has a lot more sympathy for the heathen who does the right thing than the Jew/Christian who does the wrong thing. That heathen is acting a lot like Jesus himself, though he does not know who Jesus is. And if that heathen by his works shows he is following Jesus even though he never had a formal or proper introduction then he is coming to Jesus and to the Father.

I give up. This is too nuanced for some of you.

394 posted on 01/12/2002 4:33:51 PM PST by Theresa
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To: Theresa
Well, Christ DID say, "He who has ears to hear, let him hear..."

You're right, it IS too nuanced for some to understand, although it's crystal clear to some others...;-D

396 posted on 01/14/2002 4:33:19 AM PST by Judith Anne
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To: Theresa
I agree that Jesus commended the acts of unbelievers, and also condemned those that considered themselves righteous. I am not disgreeing with you on that. The context of this entire thread is salvation, not whether or not Christ approves of what we do. Please stick to the context.
399 posted on 01/14/2002 5:12:38 AM PST by P8riot
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