;>)
I still don't get what the hell you question is, but I'll play along with you anyway.
You state that the clause in question has to do with amending the Constitution. I was wondering: did you reach that conclusion from the location of the clause in Article V...?
I reached that conclusion because that is what the clause says. That is what the heading says. I cited Article V only because that is what H.Askton claimed it showed a right to seceed. Do you deny he said that? Do you agree with him? Did I post the wrong Article V? Do you have a different version on your planet?
Now if you have a point to make, go ahead in make it and shove your condesenting libertarian attitude where the sun don't shine while you're at it.
I'll debate you anytime, but I despise playing guessing games.