And where I read it was in the Bible, not to be a smart-you-know-what. For instance, the KJV of 2 Peter 1:1 speaks of "the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ," as if God and our Saviour [sic] Jesus Christ were two different persons. What Peter actually wrote in Greek was "the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ," thus calling Jesus both God and Savior.
Modern translations such as the NIV, NASB, ESB and on and on catch what the KJV misses here.
Likewise, in Titus 2:13, the KJV mentions "the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ," again as of two Persons. Paul wrote in Greek, however, of "the blessed hope and appearance of the glory of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ." Once again, what the KJV misses is caught by NIV, NASB, ESB, and most if not all other modern translations.
Or again take 1 John 5:20. The KJV says, "And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life." The meaning of the last sentence is a bit obscure. In the English Standard Bible, which I mention above, the last sentence reads, "He is the true God and eternal life," making it crystal-clear that the apostle is saying that Jesus Christ is the true God.
So in closing yeah, I've heard that about modern translations denying the deity of Christ, and I've checked it out by the Bible, but really Race, it's baloney.
Dan
There are at least 2 pages to this web site and this topic, the second page covers whether there are extra words in the KJV and explains NO!!