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To: rwfromkansas
So you mean it is now Constitutional for the local governments to abuse Constitutioal rights? Wonder when that happened.

Since they wrote the Bill of Rights. The BoR never restricted local or state governments. It was not until after the War Between the States and the ratification of the 14th Amendment that the BoR began to be applied to governments "inferior" to the federal government.

460 posted on 12/17/2001 6:15:58 PM PST by Chemist_Geek
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To: Chemist_Geek
The Bill of Rights applies to ALL levels of government. There'd be no need for the 9th and 10th Amendments if the Bill didn't explicitly address ALL forms of government. Because a government is local does not grant it power to curb Freedom of Speech or association or worship OR self-defense in the form of keeping and bearing arms.

So, no, you're quite wrong on that.

467 posted on 12/17/2001 7:34:49 PM PST by Skywalk
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