I am currently reading the Qur'an for the first time. It isn't gripping me, but I did notice that the second Surah seems to have many references to the people who have rejected Islam. Since the Surahs were supposed to have been given to Mohammed in successive years, the second would have been given long before the religion of Islam existed. Yet it contains a lot of language regarding those who have rejected Allah and the message in the Qur'an.
If this statement is true, it would explain my quandry.
Just my $.02.
Shalom.