The reason, however, for my questions is based on the fact that the Bible simply does not support a pre-tribulational rapture (We do, actually, believe in the Rapture -it's the timing we disagree about). Considering the fact that the disp/pre-mill position is, by far, the minority position of (orthodox) Christian Eschatology (Both on a historical level and on a current percentage level.) it is evident that the disp/pre-mill position is certainly not clear, and at best questionable. There seems to be this confidence among the disp/pre-mills that they need not be prepared for the 'great tribulation' since they will be raptured away before it occurs. This is dangerous, because if the disp/pre-mill position is wrong, then these faithfull christians who accept this theology will not be prepared for what may happen to them.
Now to my questions:
1. Please show me where the Bible states that the "last trumpet" spoken of in 1 Corinthians 15:52 is not really the last trumpet.
2. Please show me where the Bible states that there is a delay or a period of time (1950 years now and counting) between the 69th 'seven' and the 70th 'seven' spoken of in Daniel 9.
3. Please explain to me which of the two millennia spoken of in Rev. 20 is the one where Jesus shall reign on earth on the throne of David.
4. Please show me why, when the Bible states in Rev. 3:10 that "I will keep thee from the hour of temptation" (The greek word for temptation in this passage is identical to the greek word used for temptation in the Lords prayer found in Matthew 6:13 and Luke 11:4), this means the believers will be removed from the earth before the 'great tribulation' and not that God will keep his faithful from temptation (as the passage simply says) as they requested him in the Lord's Prayer??
5. Why does Paul warn the gentile Thessalonian congregation in 2 Thessalonians 2 that "...the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him (i.e. the rapture), That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand. Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed,..." if the rapture was to take place before the man of sin be revealed??
6. Why did the theology of dispensational Pre-millennialism never once occur to the Chruch for 1800 years (170 years ago)?
I'll start here and patiently wait for your reply.
In Christ,
Jean