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I'm not sure, were you saying that 80% of Israel is virtually uninhabitable desert? So ... does this mean that the famed "6%" of land bought by Jews is arable and that only the remaining 14% was owned by private Arab citizens? I'm not sure if I've got this right because these numbers might be from different times, where there were different borders, and it doesn't work out... but if it does, we are looking at pre WW1 breakdown as: Jews owned 6%, and the other 94% was owned by either Arab private citizens or the Ottoman Empire. Now, private citizens rarely buy uninhabitable land, so presumably that 80% was under the control of the OE. Leaving 14% AT MOST to be owned by private Arab owners... so of the arable land, private Arab citizens owned about 72% at most....and in 1922, the land was split giving the Arabs 77%. Well, that seems very fair. Looks to me like the Arabs spit on a fair deal and have only themselves to blame for the ensuing mess.