[dirtboy]

Historians contend that in early modern times, 17th to mid 19th century there was a deliberate attempt by warring armies to minimize damage to civilians.

I think that's rose-colored glasses. The British during the Revolutionary War often destroyed civilian facilities that manufactured arms and equipment for the Continental Army, for example - so how is that different from bombing a German ball-bearing factory? What has changed over the years is the ability of military force to project great distances via air power into the heartland of the enemy - and with that comes the temptation to attack large civilian populations to crush their will to fight (a flawed theory IMO)...

[Aurelius]

"The British during the Revolutionary war often destroyed civilian factories that manufactured arms and equipment...

Of course they did. I'm sorry, I should have been more specific and said: "civilians not explicitely involved in the war effort". I am referring to the bombing of civilian populations in non-industrial areas. As in the case of Dresden, for example. Also, Hiroshima and Nagasaki.