In the Old Testament, the word mashiach means a "king" (literally, "the one who has been annointed"). It is a political, not spiritual, concept that has no meaning comparable to the meaning of the English word "messiah." Later, during the Babylonian exile, the Jews hoped for the restoration of an independent Judea and began to foretell the coming of the "Messiah," i.e., the return of a legitimate Jewish king. Nowhere in the OT does the word "messiah" have anything like the meaning that the Christians later gave it.
Such a bold statement you make! I will not ask you for your historical sources because you have absolutely none. So here is your history lesson:
Hebrew "Messiah" = "Annointed"
Greek "Messiah" (Christos) = "Annointed"
Notice that Messiah and Christ mean EXACTLY the same thing in both languages.
Now, who anticipated a Messiah? The Pharisees, the Essenes and the Zealots. Some expected two Messiahs; one a priest and one a king. Others like most Pharisees and Zealots expected a political deliverer. They were expecting ONE LIKE MOSES. FYI, there have been many Jewish kings since Moses including David, Solomon, and the Hasmoneans. None of them were the ONE LIKE MOSES. Once when some Pharisees were speaking with Jesus he asked them,
"What do you think about the Christ and whose son is he?"
They said to him "The Son of David."
You can find this at the end of Matthew chapter 22. There are more instances of discussions with the Jewish leaders about the Annointed One but if you are interested, you can search for them.
One final error I must correct: If the idea of a Messiah began with the Babylonian captivity, why is it that we find references to one beginning in Genesis? No offense meant, but please don't bother to respond unless you first arm yourself with some facts.