Since Rome has taught very little, authoritatively, "in this area," you have absolutely no grounds for saying this.
Here's what Rome insist on:
I can defend every one of those claims from Scripture, and I can slap down any Scripture you bring up by way of objection.
Your freewill beliefs have to be reconciled to this verse:
But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness unto him; neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.
I'm not sure what you think we need to reconcile. As I stated, for the unjustified man to be brought to repentance and conversion requires a gift of grace (what theologians call "actual grace," as distinct from "sanctifying grace," which justifies). That verse is completely in agreement with Catholic teaching; in fact, a Catholic who denied it would be in a state of material heresy.
It's been my observation that most Calvinists have a very distorted idea of what the Catholic Church teaches on this issue. That's probably because most Catholics have a confused idea of what their own church teaches on it. However, the teachings are quite clear as far as they go. The whole issue is mysterious, as we should expect it to be. The kernel of Calvin's error was to try to turn a mystery into a machine, as though he could understand God! St. Paul said that God's ways were inscrutable. He was right; Calvin was wrong.
For more information, I recommend this article.
The unjustified man is, as St. Paul writes, "dead in his sins" and requires a gift of actual grace through the Holy Spirit to respond to God's calling by repentance, faith, and salvation. (NB: This was stated explicitly by both the 2nd Council of Orange and the Council of Trent. It is de fide Catholic teaching and it is material heresy for a Catholic to deny it.)
Ok!
The damnation of the reprobate is earned by their sins.
Ok!
God ardently desires the salvation of all and the damnation of none, and grants to each man sufficient (but not necessarily irresistable) grace to save his soul.
Absolutely wrong! You are misreading verse and totally ignoring others. For God to ardently desire the salvation of all men everywhere without exception means that He will spend eternity with all His desires not met. This is a shaky foundation upon which to stand for how can I satisfy myself in the Lord when He cannot satisfy himself.
However, God is free to desire something more than the salvation of an individual, and in many (perhaps all) cases, he does: he desires that they be saved as free agents who can refuse his offer of salvation if they so choose. Note that being "free to refuse" does not imply the converse, that the unjustified man is "free to choose" God apart from God's choice of him. He isn't; see above.
Since this wierd statement is dependent upon the one above, I'll simply wait for you to trot your verses and explainations out.