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To: angelo
3. I have learned that Protestants seem to have the hardest time recognizing the difference between the "text-in-itself" and their own interpretation (sorry guys).

Hi, Angelo. Could you give a simple example of this problem? I may be misunderstanding it, because I see just the opposite (big surprise, huh?). So perhaps an example would help me. Thanks.
-- Hopefulpilgrim

7,740 posted on 11/13/2001 5:20:04 PM PST by hopefulpilgrim
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To: hopefulpilgrim
Hi, Angelo. Could you give a simple example of this problem? I may be misunderstanding it, because I see just the opposite (big surprise, huh?). So perhaps an example would help me. Thanks.

The problem for most is that a person who believes they are "just reading the text" cannot see that they are interpreting. And no matter how many times they are told or the various ways it is demonstrated to them, if they really believe they are just "reading the text," no evidence to the contrary will be allowed. Think of it this way, when the Catholics assert that their church is infallible and protected from error, what evidence can you offer them that will prove to them that they are wrong? Usually, the same kind of evidence that you can offer to a Protestant of their Bible interpretation. Namely, none. FWIW IMVHO

7,747 posted on 11/13/2001 5:44:31 PM PST by the808bass
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To: hopefulpilgrim
Hi, Angelo. Could you give a simple example of this problem? I may be misunderstanding it, because I see just the opposite (big surprise, huh?). So perhaps an example would help me. Thanks.

Well, I think the best way to go about demonstrating this is to flag you the next time I see it happen. But to give one example, consider the case of John 6. As a noninterested party, I can read this chapter, and see that the Catholic interpretation is a plausible one. Certain Protestants will not accept this, though, and will insist that their reading of the passage is the only possible and true reading of the passage.

7,790 posted on 11/16/2001 1:06:30 PM PST by malakhi
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