v>These verses were not speaking of keeping a literal feast.
IMR>Why? Christ took the place of a real lamb for a real feast (Passover).
v>Paul would not use leavened or unleavened bread regarding a literal feast knowing that it was part of the law done away in Christ.
IMR>Why? The real feast used unleavened bread.
IMR>Christ's sacrifice was of a piece with the Passover Seder. Why did Christ institute the new covenant within the boundaries of the old (the passover supper, that is)?
IMR>You are correct that Easter (and to a similar extent Christmas) have become flooded (and in some cases buried) with pagan ritual signs. But that does not change the real celebration of His death burial and resurrection. Christmas is harder since it does not even correspond to the actual birth day of Christ, but Easter is forever tied to the Passover.
37524 posted on 3/29/02 1:52 PM Mountain by IMRight
The L-rd's Supper is a pesach seder up through but not including the last "cup of the vine" (Matthew 26)
The last cup is drunk at the Marriage Supper of the Lamb in Revelation 19
chuck <truth@Y'shuaHaMashiach>
The L-rd's Supper is a pesach seder up through but not including the last "cup of the vine" (Matthew 26)
Are you refering to the lupper room? Or the "Lord's supper" we have today (in whatever form). If the first, I agree completely. I'm not sure of the context if the second.
The last cup is drunk at the Marriage Supper of the Lamb in Revelation 19
I had always assumed that the fourth cup was drunk at the cross - "Therefore when Jesus had received the sour wine, He said, "It is finished!" And He bowed His head and gave up His spirit."
Maybe "it is finished" refers to the seder?
Mark 14:25 Verily I say unto you, I will drink no more of the fruit of the vine, until that day that I drink it new in the kingdom of God.
Acts 10:41 Not to all the people, but unto witnesses chosen before God, even to us, who did eat and drink with him after he rose from the dead.