[SoothingDave]

You still haven't answered my question: Show me one case in the Bible where 40 days and 40 nights is used figuratively.

Ahem. Show me one case in which it is used literally. We are discussing differences in interpretation. Your built in bias towards literalness does not put me on the defensive. I can use my built in bias to understanding this idiomatically and turn the question around.

Show me one case in the Bible where years are used in a prophecy and they are figurative. Just one. It shouldn't be too hard.

Boy, your question has changed. In post 31600, you said "But all prophecy where time periods are used are literal." It has been shown that the weeks in Daniel are not literal weeks.

Yet you continue to press the same point. I have already shown that names for time periods are used in a non literal manner.

SD

[JohnnyM]

obviously you have avoided the question because you can't answer it. Let me word it another way. Why then do you believe 40 days and 40 nights is figurative??

JM

[JohnnyM]

also, why then do you celebrate Easter and Good friday?? Is 3 days not figurative??? If so, then why??

JM

[JohnnyM]

""But all prophecy where time periods are used are literal." It has been shown that the weeks in Daniel are not literal weeks."

I firmly disagree with you assessment of this as well. The fact is that if the interpretation of week is a 7 year period or if it is a period of 7 days it would still be a literal interpretation no matter which one you choose. The fact is you don't seem to understandstand the terms literal and figurative. To interpret Daniel's 70 weeks as 490 days or as 490 years is still a literal interpretation. So I stand by my statement. Any time period, using days, years, months, weeks, nights. Just show me one, and I will get off your case.

JM