If Luke 1:28 is interpreted by Catholics to mean that Mary was born without sin [immaculate], then to be consistent, don't you think they should say the same about those who Paul is referring to in Ephesians 1:6 . ??
Those new Christians were baptised, so they had the stain of original sin removed. That is, they became the same as Mary was from birth. So it isn't surprising that the same word is used.
Did I blow you mind?
SD
By this term it is impied that Mary is the mother of the Father God, t the Son of God, and the Holy Spirit. Did she give birth to triplets, or am I missing something?
You are missing any understanding of what the definition of Theotokos means. Are you sure you reject it? Why don't you find out what it means first?
Mary is the mother of the Person who is Jesus. This person is fully human and fully God. There is no time that Jesus was Incarnate, no time as a zygote or embryo, when He was not God. Therefore it can be said that Mary carried and gave birth to a Person who is truly God.
Mary didn't give birth to just the human part of Jesus. She gave birth to God Incarnate.
Did God exist before Mary was a twinkle in her father's eye, so how could she precede him? Was Jesus the Son of God long before she took her first breath?
Yes and yes. You confuse the issue. Theotokos doesn't mean that Mary predates the Godhead, only that she gave birth to a person who is God.
Isn't it true that the most and highest thing that Scripture says about Mary is that she was the "mother of Jesus".? And to leap from that to RCC and OC Marian claims requires a highly active imagination?
Yes, it requires us to imagine that Jesus is a Person who is God. This may be a stretch for some, but we believe the Bible testifies to that fact.
SD