Boil that down to the most basic problem the death of Christ is meant to solve. God put Christ forward (he sent him to die) in order to demonstrate his righteousness (or justice). The problem that needed solving was that God, for some reason seemed to be unrighteous, and wanted to vindicate himself and clear his nameBut what created that problem? Why did God face the problem of needing to give a public vindication of his righteousness? The answer is in the last phrase of verse 25: "on account of passing over sins done beforehand."
Now what does that mean? It means that for centuries God had been doing what Psalm 103:10 says, "He does not deal with us according to our sins or requite us according to our iniquities." He just passes over them. He does not punish them.
This is a new thought to me..I have always thought of the cross as a sign of God's Mercy and Grace,the ultimate act of love for sinful man..not as an act to vindicate His name.
Any further insite would be welcome...
Also consider that Jesus' death on the cross guaranteed the doom of Satan and all the unsaved. Since Jesus suffered the penalty for the sins of the elect, the fact that the penalty for the sins of the reprobate would also have to be paid was made certain because of God's perfect justice.
Before the cross, Satan could have accused Jesus of being unjust for not punishing His people for their sins while holding others accountable. So the cross not only vindicated the Righteousness of God as the author so accurately points out, but also vindicated the Justice of God.
I will pray for your daughter.
In Christ,
Boil that down to the most basic problem the death of Christ is meant to solve. God put Christ forward (he sent him to die) in order to demonstrate his righteousness (or justice). The problem that needed solving was that God, for some reason seemed to be unrighteous, and wanted to vindicate himself and clear his name.This is a new thought to me..I have always thought of the cross as a sign of God's Mercy and Grace,the ultimate act of love for sinful man..not as an act to vindicate His name.But what created that problem? Why did God face the problem of needing to give a public vindication of his righteousness? The answer is in the last phrase of verse 25: "on account of passing over sins done beforehand."
Now what does that mean? It means that for centuries God had been doing what Psalm 103:10 says, "He does not deal with us according to our sins or requite us according to our iniquities." He just passes over them. He does not punish them.
It was most certianly both...
To elaborate this thought:
In the OT, sins were "atoned for," (cf. Lev 1:4 and many others.) The Hebrew word translated "atonement" in the AV is kaphar, which literally means "covering." Sins in the OT were covered, not expiated. "For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins" (Hebrews 10:4). Not until the propitiatory death of Christ were sins irrevocably once and for all put away.
Thus, it was the death of Christ that indeed vindicated the Father's salvation of the Old Testament saints. They trusted in God's as-yet-future provison of salvation (cf. Rom. 4). Thus, God is demonstrated to be righteous as both the "just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus" (Romans 3:26) as well as the OT saint.