What, can't find that Aramaic text you so want to quote from? Where is it. Produce it that we may see the credibility of your argument. Knowing you are right would be predicated on an establishment of your argument in fact not fantasy. You haven't established anything save that Cephas (Kephas) is a Chaldaic/Aramaic word. The Russians, Turks, Americans, Greeks, Hindus, etc all have versions of that word too. Your problem is that the text doesn't invoke the word. It invokes two Greek words that have different meanings. The one Jesus prefers for building his Church upon is the one ascribed to himself, not to Peter. Oops. The Cephas issue comes in because in order to blur the fact of the preferance given to one Greek word over another one has to remove the difference in the two words. Words mean things. And they are chosen by a writer for a reason. Just because you need this verse to prop up a claim doesn't mean we'll by it when you try to reinvent the verse to make it say what you wish it said.
Now, if I have to chose between your version of the scripture and what the author gave us, I'll stick with the greek text we have. At least it was translated from something other than your imagination.
This was the primary point of my post (and I apparently mucked it up by introducing a side issue (important, but only tangentially related). Could someone point out the error of my thinking in regards to the Matthew 16:18 passage?