He may have spoken Aramaic. But we have a Greek text, not an aramaic text. The differentiation is in the Greek. Without an Aramaic text to compare to, there is no reason to believe that if it is a translation from Aramaic, the original Aramaic did not in some way convey the difference. You want to choose words and put them in the mouth of Jesus that fit your view of things. But, since we don't know he said it in Aramaic and don't have it written in aramaic it can hardly be stated as fact what he said in aramaic. For all we know, he was speaking in Greek. He was a Carpenter and Greek was a trade language. See the variables creeping in? I do. With or without Greek, the statement stands. I can pick a thought and express it in ten different ways in English. The same can be done in most languages. Is the quotation an exact quote? Or was it a paraphrase of the events? Hmmm? I'm sure we can offer a multitude of variables that can play with your blind ascertations. Provide the original Aramaic or be quiet, please. Noise is not scholarship.