Can you proffer an edition of the Bible that writes it in this way - an original? Rhetorical question. When you can, come talk to us. Until then it's a figment of your imagination. I've never seen a single edition of the Bible in which the differentiation is not present. Not a single edition ever written from original text that could with authority use the word Cephas in both places. You guys really want to argue it. But you have to produce it to be able to say it existed. Then you have grounds to argue that the difference exists. It doesn't.
Thanks for the production, btw, of a nonexistant example. It just buttresses a point I've been working on for two threads and beyond. Fact isn't important. You quote from an edition that doesn't exist and use that as an authority to make an argument. I couldn't make that claim credibly and really didn't, mine was a little different. You just pushed the envelope for us - through a wall as it were. Anyone else got a comment to make on this one. If it isn't Garbage or "junk" scholarship, I don't know what is.