Which rather compliates the claims of those who resort to literal interpretation of the Text. That means we have no words that Jesus actually spoke?
No, it doesn't. I didn't say Jesus spoke Aramaic. I said he may have (a maybe). The original texts *may* have been written in aramaic - doesn't mean Jesus was speaking aramaic. As I pointed out before, Jesus was a Carpenter - skilled in a trade and Greek was a common trade language. It does not stretch the bounds of possibility to consider that he could speak Greek. But this is considered on the basis that he was a mere mortal. He was the son of God. I'm certain that had he decided to speak Erdu or Hindi, he could have. Oops, another issue that just completely blows your whole theory out of the water.