Right. So the issue here is with the "underlying crime" that he was never convicted of or even tried for. The underlying crime was used to enhance the charges from misdemeanor to felony right? And the jury was specifically instructed that they did not even need to unanimously agree on a specific underlying crime to determine that one had occurred.
That's where this ruling holds sway right? That they couldn't have enhanced these charges without convicting him, unanimously, of the crime(s) they claimed caused the enhancement in the first place.