Wonder why SCOTUS now doesn’t have original jurisdiction ? SCOTUS has appellate jurisdiction but not original jurisdiction in this matter
Art III, Section 2, paragraph 2:
“In all cases affecting ambassadors, other public ministers and consuls, and those in which a state shall be party, the Supreme Court shall have original jurisdiction. In all the other cases before mentioned, the Supreme Court shall have appellate jurisdiction, both as to law and fact, with such exceptions, and under such regulations as the Congress shall make.”
thanx...i know...you're right...
There are 2 different decisions in 3 like cases.
Heller is already in the bag (course, heller, D.C. wasn't a state issue).
The other 2 (CA & IL) seem to be in conflict with heller.
Seems ripe for at least a writ of certiorari right now.
jack smith just did and it was fast track granted.
decent opinion descriptions here:
https://www.thoughtco.com/original-jurisdiction-of-us-supreme-court-4114269