First of all, "the US" does not hold elections, States do. Congress was permitted to make rules for the elections of Representatives since the beginning (1788) and for Senators (since 1913), but Electors are appointed "in such Manner as the Legislature thereof may direct", and since 1964 "as Congress shall direct" for the 3 Electors the States unwisely gave to DC in 1960.
Any Legislature could end "voting for President and Vice President" tomorrow without offending the Constitution even a little bit.
These results of the state elections are then conveyed, and have effect, on how electors are appointed, and how they cast the vote in congress in December.
So, what you are saying, is that there are no national elections, for Trump to win, or lose, in 2020.
The “election” that Trump "won" has no Constitutional existence. The 50 State Legislatures which appoint 535 Electors (and Congress, which appoints 3) have all adopted the custom of having people voting as the means by which the appointments are normally made, but this creates 51 elections, not one.
If fifty one people were to vote, we would certainly not call that a 51 vote election,say, fire chief of smalleville, rather, we would call it a series of 51 separate elections, one vote each?
I respectfully submit that in fact, 51 state elections, can indeed be referred to as a national election, consisting of individual states participating, their respective votes tallied and converted to votes based on the amount of reps thy have in the congress
What one chooses to call it does not change what it is, namely, an election, held on a given day (excusing the mail in and post dated votes) , by 51 states, to choose a national representative for the executive branch. OK, so they vote individually, so do the individual voters, but we do not refer to it as 145 million individual elections, decided one , by 140 million individuals,no, we refer to it as an election, comprised of the votes of the individuals participating, just as we have a national election, comprise of the 51 individual states participating.
When someone says Trump this or Trump that, referring to the results of the November election, what in fact happened to Trump was the result of actions taken on that day, in 51 individual states, by 145 million voters.
You stating that this has no constitutional existance is what, some type of display of con law?
does it change the fact that Trump won, or lost, based on votes cast in november, by individuals, in 51 states?
gotta go see a movie, will read reply later.
—in such Manner as the Legislature thereof may direct”, and since 1964 “as Congress shall direct” for the 3 Electors the States unwisely gave to DC in 1960.——-
Or as a court may direct, at least since the Court has said recently. There is nothing Constitutional about our Supreme Court other than the think they are Supreme