“By Bragg’s logic if you pay your lawyer and characterize the checks as legal payments,”
Per the statement of facts invoices and payments were per a retainer agreement but no such agreement existed.
The agreement could have been an oral agreement.
Does the law require a retainer agreement or does a verbal agreement suffice?
Also, don’t retainer agreements exist to make sure the lawyer gets paid, so it’s on the lawyer to get one, not the client.
I don’t see how a lack of retainer agreement would be a falsification of records on the part of the client who made a verbal agreement to a monthly fee.