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To: jeffersondem

“But why did they go to war to “free the slaves?” That could have been done peacefully using the constitutional amendment process in - say, 1848 - or even earlier.”

For some people the end of slavery was just a bellwether for the increasing and disproportional power of the Northern states. Also, a Constitutional amendment to end slavery prior to the Civil War would have never mustered the necessary state legislature votes for ratification.

The other issue wasn’t just North vs. South but a clash of Industrial/Urban culture with Agrarian/Rural culture. A paradigm that we see occurring today with urban leftists clashing with rural Americans.


42 posted on 09/20/2022 9:10:02 AM PDT by MeganC (There is nothing feminine about feminism. )
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To: MeganC
“Also, a Constitutional amendment to end slavery prior to the Civil War would have never mustered the necessary state legislature votes for ratification.”

If it is true that Lincoln did not have the votes to peacefully amend the pro-slavery U.S. Constitution prior to the war - there is evidence that was the case - then perhaps Lincoln's plan after the House Divided speech was to use war to overthrow the pro-slavery U.S. Constitution. Many people are firmly convinced Lincoln "fought to free the slaves."

But to levy war against the states Lincoln would need a pretext. He possibly found that when he used the navy to create the Gulf of Tonkin Incident.

I meant to say the Fort Sumter Incident.

48 posted on 09/22/2022 7:20:22 AM PDT by jeffersondem
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